SFMS Radiology Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• The first shoulder radiograph described in the material shows which injury most clearly?
• Which condition would ultrasound in an elderly elbow pain scenario most likely show?
• Which statement about a Jones fracture is true?
• Which CT sign suggests diverticulitis complications requiring surgery?
• Which statement about the mediastinum testis and rete testis is true?
• In football, which joint injury is commonly encountered?
• Avulsion fracture is easily confused with which radiographic finding?
• Epididymitis can be caused by which of the following?
• Which radiographic feature is most suggestive of a joint effusion on imaging?
• The knee joint is formed by articulation of which bones?
• Which option is NOT a standard DVT site to check in the leg?
• In the Weber classification, a fibular fracture below the talar dome is categorized as which type and generally considered:
• How is iodinated contrast dose determined in CT studies, and what is the typical dosing range?
• Anatomy directly behind the eyeball?
• Epididymitis etiologies include infectious processes, trauma, sexually transmitted diseases, and neoplasms. Which option most accurately reflects this?
• Which pattern of FDG uptake is most suspicious for malignancy?
• Why is the acromioclavicular (AC) joint more susceptible to trauma?
• Triquetral fracture is best seen on which wrist radiographic view?
• Standard views for elbow
• During a lower-extremity ultrasound of the hip, which maneuver is commonly used to optimize visualization?
• If this chest radiograph's lung fields are too dark, what has most likely occurred?
• In acute abdominal pain during pregnancy when ultrasound is non-diagnostic and CT is not an option, which modality is preferred?
• What are the ends of long bones called?
• Which statement best describes the relation of ganglion cysts to joints?
• What primarily defines whether an implanted device is considered MRI-conditional versus unsafe?
• What is the minimum number of radiographic views recommended for knee imaging?
• Retinal detachment is commonly associated with which history?
• Avulsion fracture is commonly confused with which structure?
• The distal tibiofibular syndesmosis is the joint that joins which bones distally?
• In pediatric knee injuries, which structure is commonly injured?
• If there is any abnormality on a CXR, the X-ray is described as?
• Epididymitis can be caused by?
• Material in the pleural space may include which of the following?
• Which of the following is a technical factor affecting XR quality?
• Which classification system is used to categorize humeral fractures?
• Which view is primarily used to identify shoulder dislocations?
• Which pattern of microcalcifications is considered suspicious in screening mammography?
• Normal tibia-fibula distance on radiographs is equal to or less than how many millimeters?
• Which MRI sequence is most sensitive to fluid and edema?
• Which wrist view best demonstrates a triquetral fracture according to the material?
• Which factor does NOT affect the adequacy or quality of an X-ray?
• What is an indication for CT colonography in colorectal cancer screening?
• Humeral head fracture is commonly associated with which shoulder injury?
• Which of the following is an essential component of a radiology report?
• Tibial plateau fracture most commonly results from which mechanism?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between Weber C fractures and syndesmotic injury?
• Don't confuse __________ for foot fracture?
• What is the preferred chest radiography view if the patient is able to cooperate?
• In scrotal ultrasound, the mediastinum testis and rete testis are part of which anatomical structure?
• Air-space opacities are NOT caused by which condition?
• What does ALARA stand for in radiology, and what is its primary purpose?
• Which statement is NOT a characteristic of a normal chest radiograph?
• What happens if you drop a transducer?
• Weber C fracture location relative to the talus is best described as which?
• The anechoic appearance on ultrasound is most consistent with which of the following?
• Which of the following statements best describes risk factors for iodinated contrast reactions and their mitigation?
• Normal extraskeletal structures in foot radiographs that can mimic fractures are known as?
• Which imaging feature helps distinguish bipartite patella from a fracture?
• Which radiographic sign is typical of an osteoporotic vertebral compression fracture on plain films?
• The scapular Y view is a radiographic view used for which region?
• Vitreous hemorrhage presents with which symptom?
• Which document guides MRI safety for implanted devices?
• Which statement best describes a torus fracture?
• Suspicious microcalcifications may be clustered, pleomorphic, or irregular in distribution and may be associated with what finding?
• Calcaneal fracture most commonly results from what mechanism?
• To evaluate gallbladder pathology, which image is used?
• Which statement correctly identifies the torus fracture?
• Which classification system is used for describing humeral fractures?
• An adolescent fracture of the knee is commonly associated with which injury?
• Which feature is characteristic of a simple cyst on ultrasound?
• Which of the following is a standard elbow radiographic view?
• In pediatric chest radiographs, what pattern distinguishes viral pneumonia from bacterial pneumonia?
• How should incidental findings on radiographs/CT be managed in a practice setting?
• What are the classic CT findings of small bowel obstruction?
• Which statement best lists the risk factors for contrast-induced nephropathy?
• What percent of the population experiences an anterior shoulder dislocation?
• In patellar fractures and bipatellar fractures, which statement best describes the fracture edges?
• Which description best summarizes a long bone fracture on radiographs?
• Which radiographic sign on a chest radiograph is most consistent with a tension pneumothorax?
• What is the purpose of standardized language in radiology reports?
• Which symptom is most characteristic of vitreous hemorrhage?
• What is the first step in managing an acute anaphylactoid reaction to iodinated contrast?
• Which statement best describes the function of the knee meniscus?
• Triquetral fracture is a fracture of which bone?
• Torus or buckle fractures are most common in which population and described as what type of fracture?
• Displacement of a fracture is defined as which of the following?
• In ultrasound imaging of the kidney, the renal cortex is relatively which of the following compared with the medulla?
• What transducer is typically used for scrotal (testicular) imaging?
• How many views in typical shoulder trauma x-ray?
• Which statement is correct about CTDIvol?
• What are the standard views in screening mammography?
• In anatomical terms, proximal refers to which location?
• Renal calculi are most accurately described as an abnormality in which part of the kidney?
• Why is recognizing normal pediatric bone age and secondary ossification centers important?
• A Baker's cyst is associated with which structure being overlapped on imaging?
• Weber A fracture is located below which structure, relative to the talar dome?
• How is knee pain after trauma with the ability to bend the knee without pain most commonly managed initially?
• What is the typical treatment for a meniscal tear?
• What radiographic sign on a chest X-ray indicates a pneumothorax?
• Which items are typically assessed on a chest radiograph?
• Which approach is recommended for fetal radiation exposure during diagnostic imaging?
• The pampiniform plexus veins are most associated with which condition described as a venous dilation in the scrotum?
• Is the statement 'Tibia plateaus extend to the knee joint' true or false?
• On ultrasound, the renal cortex is best described as which echogenicity relative to the renal medulla?
• Which Weber type is considered the worst type?
• The knee joint is formed by which bones?
• What is the clinical role of CT angiography in suspected large-vessel occlusion?
• Proximal means?
• The second shoulder radiograph described in the material shows which injury most clearly?
• Which MRI sequence highlights hemosiderin, microbleeds, and calcifications?
• Which CT finding is most sensitive for acute subarachnoid hemorrhage in the first six hours?
• Fracture appearance on radiographs typically includes which of the following?
• Which term describes a fracture that traverses the entire length of the bone?
• What is a notable limitation of CT colonography in colorectal cancer screening?
• Which statement about contrast media is true for nephroprotection in at-risk patients?
• Which statement best describes diffusion-weighted imaging in brain pathology?
• Which factor is most appropriate for assessing fracture displacement?
• Which of the following is a possible pleural space finding?
• In Rockwood Type I AC joint injuries, what is the expected finding on stress radiographs?
• Spectral Doppler provides which type of representation?
• Multifocal or bilateral pneumonia with cough and fever is best evaluated with which imaging modality?
• On elbow radiographs, which finding most supports the presence of an elbow fracture?
• Air-space opacities are caused by which of the following conditions?
• What CT features differentiate a simple renal cyst from a cystic renal mass requiring follow-up?
• Which finding is most characteristic of a meniscal tear?
• What is the minimum number of views commonly recommended for knee radiographs?
• Which mechanism is most commonly associated with calcaneal fracture?
• The Neer classification is used to categorize fractures of the proximal part of which bone?
• Ottawa foot rules: which option would indicate radiography is not required?
• Which CT finding supports the diagnosis of appendicitis?
• What is the most common elbow fracture in adults?
• How should contrast extravasation be managed when suspected during IV contrast administration?
• How does diffusion-weighted imaging help in acute ischemic stroke?
• In acute stroke, what is the initial imaging study and what is it used to exclude?
• Lisfranc injuries result from which mechanism?
• How many views are typically obtained for imaging the ankle?
• Lisfranc injury involves injury to which articulation?
• In cellulitis, what is the most important reason to perform ultrasound?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for DVT?
• Which vein group is listed as DVT sites to check in the lower extremity?
• In color Doppler imaging, when does aliasing occur?
• According to Ottawa foot rules, when would a patient NOT need an X-ray?
• What is the recommended follow-up for an incidental pulmonary nodule less than 6 mm in an average-risk patient?
• In a three-phase bone scan, which phase reflects extracellular distribution in soft tissues (the blood pool phase)?
• Which ultrasound artifact is characterized by posterior acoustic enhancement due to fluid collections?
• Name one radiographic sign of fracture instability due to displacement.
• Which is NOT elbow joint?
• In a football practice scenario described in the material, which combination of injuries is noted?
• What imaging features on MRI suggest osteomyelitis?
• Triquetral fracture involves which carpal bone?
• Which statement correctly describes CTDIvol and DLP?
• Which radiographic pattern on chest radiograph is more consistent with edema than pneumonia?
• Which statement about Doppler ultrasound and aliasing is correct?
• Which features are most commonly seen with osteoarthritis?
• Which ultrasound feature favors a solid mass over a simple cyst?
• What is the primary purpose of using a water bath in ultrasound for painful sites?
• Which section of a radiology report provides the concise interpretation and its clinical implications?
• The typical chest X-ray radiation dose is approximately:
• Triquetral fracture is best evaluated in which radiographic view?
• In small bowel obstruction, what CT finding defines the transition point?
• In a three-phase bone scan, what does decreased uptake indicate in certain contexts, and what patterns are typical for metastatic disease?
• The sagittal plane corresponds to which ultrasound view?
• What imaging feature on MRI suggests chronic osteomyelitis?
• Which of the following is listed as a DVT risk factor in the material?
• Which ultrasound modes are represented by the terms B and M?
• Weber A fracture is located at which level relative to the talar dome?
• A spermatocele arises from dilation of which structure?
• Which mechanism is commonly associated with a tibial plateau fracture?
• Which statement about bipartite patella is true?
• Asymmetric widening of the ankle joint on radiographs typically indicates what type of injury?
• Why are ferromagnetic implants considered absolute contraindications to MRI?
• Which statement best describes bipartite patella?
• Weber C fracture is best described as which of the following?
• Which phase of fracture healing involves cortical bridging and is essential for stabilizing the fracture?
• Which MRI sequence is most effective for detecting acute cerebral ischemia?
• What does the FAST exam assess in trauma and which findings are considered positive?
• Epididymitis can be caused by which etiologies?
• In an elderly patient with nontraumatic elbow pain presenting to the ER, the likely diagnosis is bursitis.
• Renal calculi are an abnormality in which part of the kidney?
• During an adolescent knee fracture, there is often an associated tear of which ligament?
• A chest X-ray is typically analyzed for which structures and support devices?
• Which radiographic view is used to measure fat-fluid levels in joints?
• On ultrasound, vitreous hemorrhage becomes hyperechoic after how many days?
• What is a standard ankle radiographic view count?
• Which MRI sequence is used to suppress CSF and enhance detection of CNS lesions?
• In osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures, which elements are typically preserved?
• In shoulder imaging, which finding is described as 'very obvious' on the first radiograph?
• Viral pneumonia is a pneumothorax cause.
• In ankle injuries, how are 1-bone stable injuries vs 2-bone unstable injuries described?
• Avulsion fracture is commonly confused with which structure?
• What is the main technique used during a lower-extremity ultrasound to exclude deep vein thrombosis?
• Standard ankle radiographs include which views?
• What are the considerations with gadolinium-based contrast agents and which patients require caution?
• Vitreous hemorrhage on ultrasound tends to become hyperechoic in a few days. Which option best reflects this timing?
• A fibular fracture above the ankle joint is Weber C and is typically:
• What type of artifact on US picture of gallbladder?
• Which CT findings support a diagnosis of diverticulitis?
• A palpable scrotal mass with dilated veins on examination is most consistent with which condition?
• Which symptom is associated with an ACL tear?
• How can you differentiate bipartite patella from a fracture on radiographs?
• Which condition is commonly treated with conservative therapy according to the material?
• Which radiographic pattern is more consistent with ileus rather than mechanical small bowel obstruction?
• Which ligament is responsible for an avulsion fracture of the central part of the tibial plateau?
• Most important reason to do US with cellulitis?
• Describe the radiographic phases of fracture healing.
• What are indications for using oral contrast in CT abdomen/pelvis imaging, and what are its limitations?
• Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to MRI?
• What is considered a normal tibia-fibula distance on radiographs?
• If CXR lung fields are too dark?
• What is a potential consequence after a shoulder dislocation if not treated properly?
• Between CT and MRI, which modality is generally preferred for initial evaluation of a suspected brain tumor and why?
• A central tibial plateau avulsion fracture is associated with which ligament?
• Pulmonary edema can cause which radiographic pattern?
• In the given radiology protocol, a CT scan is ordered if the measured value exceeds what threshold?
• Which statement best describes remodeling in fracture healing?
• Subtle fractures are suggested by which combination of findings?
• What is the role of transarterial embolization in GI bleeding and what materials are used?
• Lisfranc injuries typically involve injury to which region of the foot?
• Best radiographic view to evaluate a Triquetral fracture?
• In a soldier presenting with focal chest pain, which injury is suggested?
• Ganglion cysts are most commonly located adjacent to which structures?
• Which component of a radiology report conveys the clinical question or reason for the study?
• The Neer classification is used for fractures of which bone?
• In a three-phase bone scan, which phase corresponds to delayed imaging that reflects osteoblastic activity?
• A Jones fracture involves which bone, and may require imaging beyond standard views?
• Which CT finding increases the specificity for appendicitis?
• Which view is a shoulder radiographic view named after the scapula?
• Which description best matches the typical symptoms of a meniscal tear?
• A fibular fracture at the level of the talar line is Weber B. This injury can be:
• What are typical Hounsfield unit values for air, fat, water, soft tissue, and bone?
• DLP is used to estimate which of the following?
• Which component of a radiology report describes how the examination was performed?
• The most common soft tissue knee injuries involve which structures?
• Name one radiographic sign of fracture instability related to joint incongruity.
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a possible cause of pneumothorax in ultrasound contexts?
• What is the approximate radiation dose of a chest X-ray?